How Can Such a Strong Consensus Be So Wrong for so Long?

[Stubble]

I see, so, Bergen Belsen was a 'murder mill' then? Along with all the other concentration, labor and oddly enough, specifically, in the case of Bergen Belsen, recovery camps?

Come on Nessie, be coherent.

[Archie]

https://odysee.com/@WellHereWeGoDocumen ... an-jewry:f

Here is some reading Nessie.

Something a little more concise.

https://codoh.com/library/document/new- ... ean-jewry/

The Wannsee Minutes and Korherr Report record huge drops in the Jewish populations, of Jews who had fallen under Nazi control. The Nazis had the most accurate records of Jews who they identified and arrested.

Can you quote the part in the Wannsee minutes that indicates a "huge drop" in Jewish population?

[Nessie]

I see, so, Bergen Belsen was a 'murder mill' then? Along with all the other concentration, labor and oddly enough, specifically, in the case of Bergen Belsen, recovery camps?

Come on Nessie, be coherent.

When the British liberated B-B in 1945, it was reasonable for it to be called a death camp. Over time, that term has become more commonly applied to the specific death camps, such as TII. Less of a consensus has developed over the years, over how to describe the different camps, so you may still see B-B being described by some as a death camp.

[Nessie]

https://odysee.com/@WellHereWeGoDocumen ... an-jewry:f

Here is some reading Nessie.

Something a little more concise.

https://codoh.com/library/document/new- ... ean-jewry/

The Wannsee Minutes and Korherr Report record huge drops in the Jewish populations, of Jews who had fallen under Nazi control. The Nazis had the most accurate records of Jews who they identified and arrested.

Can you quote the part in the Wannsee minutes that indicates a "huge drop" in Jewish population?

http://www.holocaustresearchproject.org ... nutes.html

The stated aim of the Final Solution;

"a) the expulsion of the Jews from every sphere of life of the German people,
b) the expulsion of the Jews from the living space of the German people."

That clearly means there will be a huge drop in the Jewish population, as the aim is to have no Jews living anywhere occupied by Germans. The minutes then records that;

"537,000 Jews were sent out of the country between the takeover of power and the deadline of 31 October 1941."

That is pretty much the entire Jewish population of the greater Reich. After the 1941 invasion of the Soviet Union, many were being sent east, to ghettos in the Baltic States. It is not to stop there;

"Approximately 11 million Jews will be involved in the final solution of the European Jewish question"

There is then a list of countries and their Jewish populations. Estonia is already recorded as "Jew free". Latvia has 3,500, but its Jewish population when the Nazis invaded in 1941 was c75,000. Lithuania's 1941 population was c250,000, but the minutes record it as 34,000. Those huge drops were due to the activity of the Einsaztgruppen and it was in 1941, in the Baltic States, that the Holocaust mass murders began. The Netherlands is recorded as having 160,800 Jews, which was because deportations had yet to begin.

[Stubble]

I see, so, Bergen Belsen was a 'murder mill' then? Along with all the other concentration, labor and oddly enough, specifically, in the case of Bergen Belsen, recovery camps?

Come on Nessie, be coherent.

When the British liberated B-B in 1945, it was reasonable for it to be called a death camp. Over time, that term has become more commonly applied to the specific death camps, such as TII. Less of a consensus has developed over the years, over how to describe the different camps, so you may still see B-B being described by some as a death camp.

Because the allies destroyed the rail system, bombed the water plant and they were having an epidemic of typhus?

Bergen Belsen was classed by the German Authorities as a Recovery Camp at the time.

[Nessie]

I see, so, Bergen Belsen was a 'murder mill' then? Along with all the other concentration, labor and oddly enough, specifically, in the case of Bergen Belsen, recovery camps?

Come on Nessie, be coherent.

When the British liberated B-B in 1945, it was reasonable for it to be called a death camp. Over time, that term has become more commonly applied to the specific death camps, such as TII. Less of a consensus has developed over the years, over how to describe the different camps, so you may still see B-B being described by some as a death camp.

Because the allies destroyed the rail system, bombed the water plant and they were having an epidemic of typhus?

Bergen Belsen was classed by the German Authorities as a Recovery Camp at the time.

Because the Nazis packed it full of prisoners and then failed to feed the Jewish ones.

[Stubble]

When the British liberated B-B in 1945, it was reasonable for it to be called a death camp. Over time, that term has become more commonly applied to the specific death camps, such as TII. Less of a consensus has developed over the years, over how to describe the different camps, so you may still see B-B being described by some as a death camp.

Because the allies destroyed the rail system, bombed the water plant and they were having an epidemic of typhus?

Bergen Belsen was classed by the German Authorities as a Recovery Camp at the time.

Because the Nazis packed it full of prisoners and then failed to feed the Jewish ones.

I see, so, the testimonies from the shoah foundation attesting to conditions in the camp being 'pretty good' and the correlation of the death rate at the camp and allied tonnage dropped are to be ignored, and the lack of ability to reliably supply the camp is to be ignored, and the delivery of supplies by the red cross to the camp is to be ignored.

Got it.

[Nessie]

Because the allies destroyed the rail system, bombed the water plant and they were having an epidemic of typhus?

Bergen Belsen was classed by the German Authorities as a Recovery Camp at the time.

Because the Nazis packed it full of prisoners and then failed to feed the Jewish ones.

I see, so, the testimonies from the shoah foundation attesting to conditions in the camp being 'pretty good' and the correlation of the death rate at the camp and allied tonnage dropped are to be ignored, and the lack of ability to reliably supply the camp is to be ignored, and the delivery of supplies by the red cross to the camp is to be ignored.

Got it.

I have never seen any evidence of an Allied bomb specifically hitting a rial line, or road, that prevented an actual supply delivery to the camp. All I have ever seen is revisionist speculation.

[Archie]

The Wannsee Minutes and Korherr Report record huge drops in the Jewish populations, of Jews who had fallen under Nazi control. The Nazis had the most accurate records of Jews who they identified and arrested.

Can you quote the part in the Wannsee minutes that indicates a "huge drop" in Jewish population?

http://www.holocaustresearchproject.org ... nutes.html

The stated aim of the Final Solution;

"a) the expulsion of the Jews from every sphere of life of the German people,
b) the expulsion of the Jews from the living space of the German people."

That clearly means there will be a huge drop in the Jewish population, as the aim is to have no Jews living anywhere occupied by Germans. The minutes then records that;

"537,000 Jews were sent out of the country between the takeover of power and the deadline of 31 October 1941."

That is pretty much the entire Jewish population of the greater Reich. After the 1941 invasion of the Soviet Union, many were being sent east, to ghettos in the Baltic States. It is not to stop there;

"Approximately 11 million Jews will be involved in the final solution of the European Jewish question"

There is then a list of countries and their Jewish populations. Estonia is already recorded as "Jew free". Latvia has 3,500, but its Jewish population when the Nazis invaded in 1941 was c75,000. Lithuania's 1941 population was c250,000, but the minutes record it as 34,000. Those huge drops were due to the activity of the Einsaztgruppen and it was in 1941, in the Baltic States, that the Holocaust mass murders began. The Netherlands is recorded as having 160,800 Jews, which was because deportations had yet to begin.

1) The Jewish population decrease in the Reich was due to emigration, not mass executions.

2) The figures in the Wannsee minutes of 11.2 million are very high. These are over 1M higher than Korherr's prewar figures and over 1.5M more than Hilberg's prewar figures. If the German statistics on Jews are as reliable as you say, why don't the numbers between German sources agree? And how is a population of 11.2M a "huge drop"? Keep in mind that the Einsatzgruppen had supposedly executed about 1M Jews by this point (early 1942).

[ConfusedJew]

Guys for a hot minute you made me start to doubt that the Holocaust really happened.

I never knew about the British guy who bore witness to the gas chambers in Dachau that may have never been used. And I also had no idea about that guy named Bernard Mark censored and edited parts of survivor testimonies to fit the Communist narrative.

I still think it actually happened though and those were probably just one-off flukes but I am learning so much about things here.

[Stubble]

Guys for a hot minute you made me start to doubt that the Holocaust really happened.

I never knew about the British guy who bore witness to the gas chambers in Dachau that may have never been used. And I also had no idea about that guy named Bernard Mark censored and edited parts of survivor testimonies to fit the Communist narrative.

I still think it actually happened though and those were probably just one-off flukes but I am learning so much about things here.

Just curious, did you know that psywar was in first at Dachau? Also, did you know that the western allies staged a fake 'homicidal gas chamber' at the Eiffel Tower for a propaganda film?

Same guys. Same director, same crew etc...

That's all fodder for another thread. I wanted to drop it here because you said the Dachau 'homicidal gas chamber' may have never been used...

[ConfusedJew]

I know you guys hate it when I use ChatGPT but psywar is basically as old as civilization.

The first psychological warfare (psywar) in recorded history depends on how broadly you define it. If you define psywar as the deliberate use of information, fear, deception, or propaganda to influence the morale, decision-making, or behavior of an enemy, then we can trace its origins thousands of years back.

Below are key early examples:

1. Assyrian Empire (9th–7th century BCE)

The Assyrians were masters of terror as a psychological weapon. They engraved images of mass executions and flayings on palace walls and sent these images ahead of their armies to terrify enemy cities into surrendering. This is widely considered one of the earliest systematic uses of psychological warfare.

2. Sun Tzu’s The Art of War (China, ~5th century BCE)

Sun Tzu advocated deception, misinformation, and manipulation as core military tools. He wrote: “To subdue the enemy without fighting is the acme of skill.” Though not a battle itself, the book is a theoretical manual of early psywar principles.

[ConfusedJew]

That's all fodder for another thread. I wanted to drop it here because you said the Dachau 'homicidal gas chamber' may have never been used...

"The gas chamber at Dachau concentration camp did exist, but there is no conclusive evidence that it was ever used for mass executions. Some accounts suggest it may have been used experimentally or for small-scale executions, but these claims are not strongly substantiated by documentary evidence."

We know for a fact that the gas chambers were in Dachau. I saw them with my own two eyes with the fake shower heads and everything.

If they weren't used to kill people then what were they used for? You guys are making the claim that they were never used to kill, and while I agree there is still ongoing debate, there is no conclusive evidence that they were not used.

How do we figure this out. On whom lies the burden of proof? Can you even prove a negative? Philosophers say yes in special circumstances.

Did you know that the western allies staged a fake 'homicidal gas chamber' at the Eiffel Tower for a propaganda film?

Never heard about this. Do you have a link to the vide on YouTube or Rumble or something that I can see?

[Stubble]

Did you know that the western allies staged a fake 'homicidal gas chamber' at the Eiffel Tower for a propaganda film?

Never heard about this. Do you have a link to the vide on YouTube or Rumble or something that I can see?

The Eiffel Tower 'homicidal gas chamber' makes its appearance here in this clip.

https://collections.ushmm.org/search/catalog/irn1000177

Notice that's from USHMM, so, nothing up my sleeve.

Of course the mock up of a gas chamber exists and you saw it. Nobody says anything different about that. It was a mock up.

What was the room used for? Read the door, it was a shower room. The OSS and Psywar dropped the ceiling and installed dummy shower heads.

Let me go grab you some receipts. If anyone beats me to them, I won't be upset.

Remember, the original claim was gas through pipes, just like the other fake gas chamber at the Eiffel Tower...

Here is an article from Mattogno. He doesn't mention the presence of the film crew and psywar, likely because that's patently obvious, because it was filmed.

https://codoh.com/library/document/the- ... n-forgery/

[Archie]

That's all fodder for another thread. I wanted to drop it here because you said the Dachau 'homicidal gas chamber' may have never been used...

"The gas chamber at Dachau concentration camp did exist, but there is no conclusive evidence that it was ever used for mass executions. Some accounts suggest it may have been used experimentally or for small-scale executions, but these claims are not strongly substantiated by documentary evidence."

We know for a fact that the gas chambers were in Dachau. I saw them with my own two eyes with the fake shower heads and everything.

If they weren't used to kill people then what were they used for? You guys are making the claim that they were never used to kill, and while I agree there is still ongoing debate, there is no conclusive evidence that they were not used.

How do we figure this out. On whom lies the burden of proof? Can you even prove a negative? Philosophers say yes in special circumstances.

Did you know that the western allies staged a fake 'homicidal gas chamber' at the Eiffel Tower for a propaganda film?

Never heard about this. Do you have a link to the vide on YouTube or Rumble or something that I can see?

Here's the Americans trying to explain how the Dachau "gas chamber" worked. Utterly laughable.