Rearmament is a preventative measure, and your quote about Lebensraum being "the task of the political leadership one day to solve this problem" aligns with my position fully. As for your second quote, "Raeder 27" is not a valid citation. Please let me know where I can find this in-context.
To Numar:
You are correct that wealth, alone, does not necessarily equate to corruption however you would be hard-pressed to claim that Jews have upset so many nations over time simply due to being excellent at acquiring wealth, alone. It is the evidence of how powerful Jews have coordinated over time which becomes front-and-center, and which is undeniable.You’re conflating a lot here. Being wealthy in and of itself or having influence can’t just be lumped together with corruption.
The issue is that Jews have never honored the "deals" with any other nation. This is inherent to their ideology that they may not do so. Even if some outliers come about, these have clearly been insufficient to drive a collective shift toward sincere patriotism of their host nation. If it ever had, as mentioned before, there would be some substantial history of Jews exposing and holding publicly accountable other Jews, given that the involvement of many Jews in corrupt schemes at high levels over time is utterly irrefutable. But, as mentioned before, no such history exists. Only once an individual Jew receives mass public exposure (independently of Jewish efforts) do other Jews in general step in to ostensibly condemn these acts (e.g. Bernie Madoff, Sam Bankman-Fried, Jeffrey Epstein).[On treating Germany and Jews each as collectives:]
Unfortunately, doing so upends a couple hundred years of punishing people for crimes that they as individuals have committed, rather than imposing collective punishment.
I’ve written here before on the challenge posed to both European society and to Jews specifically by the Jewish question (in the 19th century understanding of the term — that is, whether could Jews fully participate in European society and remain distinct in some way).
During the French Revolution, the issue was put rather succinctly by a member of the National Assembly, ie, that Jews were entitled to equality as individuals but to nothing as a group. Note that this agreement implies two things: that Jews not seek group rights and that society generally — and government specifically — not treat Jews differently.
The minute you look at an ecumenical political movement, whether mainstream or extreme, and identify it as “Jewish” because there are Jewish people participating, but you’ve violated that agreement.
This is a long way of getting back to the case of Germany and who wronged whom first. Assume that 1871 Germany made the same deal to Jews that France did nearly 100 years earlier. Assume that in particular because that’s what actually happened. Who broke the deal? I’d argue that certain segments of German society never honored it in the first place. You’d argue the opposite. I’m asking for proof.
While white youth and adults in 2020 marched globally against an exaggerated [or false] sense of collective guilt on the part of other whites of past and present, no such protests/activitism at any scale has ever happened on the part of Jews. This is strange, no?
You might argue that "segments of German society" did not honor their 'individualism pact' from 1871 but Jews have remained steadfast collectivists in every single nation they have occupied, anywhere. This is their trademark; it is their collective nature which has strengthened them over the many generations, and which made a political movement like Zionism achievable to begin with.
See here:You claimed Jews started WWI and that they were responsible for German economic misery after the war. Please offer some evidence.
https://codoh.com/library/document/the- ... rs-part-1/
And here:
https://codoh.com/library/document/the- ... rs-part-2/
For a more comprehensive analysis, see here:
https://ia601705.us.archive.org/5/items ... 019%29.pdf